QROT-27: How the omicron variant is "proven"? By noting the way it does NOT pass the test for something ELSE, then assuming all those non-matches are the same thing!!

Dec 06, 2021, 06:11 PM

Literally the (non)-logic for calling something "the latest variant" (Omicron) is to see how it does NOT match the existing test, and if it MISmatches in a certain WAY, then they ASSUME it is exactly and only one variant!!

That is, a MISMATCH, plus a giant, non-scientific, assumption is how the latest variant is "identified."

Not only that, the MISMATCH is for the SPIKE PROTEIN section! "If the test result matches the more stable areas, but not the spike protein area, then it is probably omicron."
No it's damned not. ALL variants pre-covid, and therefore ALL variants not in the covid-19 tree ALSO do not have the spike protein area! Is it possible that omicron is the most likely SINGLE variant when there's a mismatch? MAYBE, but that argument is circular. But is it even more  likely than not? WHY would it be? There could be literally dozens or hundreds of variants that match on the two stable areas and not the spike protein area.

But, salesmanship helps create the narrative. An honest intellect says the above. A salesman says "it is fortunate that our [old] test can detect this pattern that is consistent with Omicron."

It's not even a flip of a coin, dickhead. 

Analogy: If the DNA for a suspect doesn't match, then you merely have evidence to exclude that person. Scientifically, this is no better than assuming a NON-match to one person in DNA results PROVES that another person did it!!

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